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Lionel Page's avatar

Hi Thomas,

Interesting post. Bourdieu’s theory in La Distinction was grounded in statistical analyses of the mapping of different tastes in the social space, so it is not devoid of empirical evidence. Regarding luxury beliefs, they could signal belonging to specific parts of the elite—those high in cultural capital, not necessarily those high in economic capital. The distinction between these two groups was present in Bourdieu and is also present in Piketty: Brahmin left vs. Merchant right.

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Tom Lewis's avatar

Hi Thomas, Tom from Liberal London Twitter here!

Hope all is well with the girls and life is treating you well! Anyway, a couple of questions that might well have been considered, but might help get a little closer to finding a satisfactory outcome.

1. I don't see why - under the definition given - luxury beliefs could only be 'progressive'. I know that's where it's derisively aimed, but it feels far from an axiom if we consistently apply the definition. Like, couldn't the sovereignty argument for Brexit equally meet the criteria of a luxury belief? And that's far from a progressive view.

2. The whole process starts from the foundational belief that holding progressive views has limited to no negative effect on the wealthy and ONLY negative effects on the mass of people that aren't as wealthy. This needs to be demonstrated. It can't be asserted and never returned to. And finally;

3. How would you go about demonstrating that anyway? How do you measure the effects of a generic belief system within which there's a mass of diverging views? The policies or actions that are promoted seems doable, but then you're not critiquing the belief system, you're critiquing policy proposals/promoted acts. This runs a massive risk of strawmanning, as in the example in the article, which is one I've heard before. How many people that would come up highly on the progressive scale you mention actually believe ALL of the specific issues you could measure to ascertain the positive/negative balance of an action? This seems an impossible ask.

So, as I see it (although I appreciate there will be far more to it than this, mind!) the hypothesis appears to boil down to: "Progressive views (in general) are damaging to poorer people, while having no negative effect on the wealthier people that hold them. They are also held cynically in order to obtain status."

This feels more like a polemic than a piece of research that can realistically be carried out with any reliability. But I'd love to hear - or read! - more to understand better.

Anyway, I'd also love to respond more in full and will attempt to soon.

All the best!

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